Why? For the simple reason of slew rate. For this reason, input bias current become important. The rail voltages are a secondary consideration.
Announcement
Collapse
No announcement yet.
Announcement
Collapse
No announcement yet.
[HELP] asymmetric output op amp
Collapse
X
-
i have test swap IC-2 NE5534 with OPA134, LME49710, AD847, same result,Originally posted by dbanner View PostWhy? For the simple reason of slew rate. For this reason, input bias current become important. The rail voltages are a secondary consideration.
I suspect it has something to do with 4066, later I will not use 4066, I will report the results again
Regard,
Wahyu
Comment
-
Originally posted by rickb View PostWahyu
do you have + and - power connected to the 4066's? You don't show it.Originally posted by waltr View PostAlso try removing the 4066 then measure 5534 output.Originally posted by dbanner View PostHave a look at the goldscan 5 schematic. Pretty straightforward. Like I said, input bias and slew go hand in hand.
this is my mistake, I don't use +5V and -5V on cd4066 ,
Thank for rickb, waltr, dbanner, green, moodz and KT315
SOLVE
Regard,
Wahyu
Comment
-
schematic
Different supply 4093 and 4066, swing clipping,
After 4093 and 4066 supply with +5V / -5V
SOLVED,
Thanks All,
Regard,
Wahyu
Comment

Comment